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psssb je mechanical book test series syllabus exam date 2026

1 August 2026 by
psssb je mechanical book test series syllabus exam date 2026
VIVEK

50 MCQs on Manufacturing Processes

(Dry & Green Sand Casting, Casting Defects, Die Casting, Continuous Casting, Centrifugal Casting, Gas Welding)

Each question has four options. The correct answer is indicated, followed by a detailed explanation.

Green Sand & Dry Sand Casting

1. Green sand is so named because: 
A) It contains green pigments 
B) It is used in the green (moist) state 
C) It is environmentally friendly 
D) It is made from green moulding sand 

Answer: B 
Green sand contains moisture (usually 2–8%) and is used in the damp/moist condition without baking or drying. The term “green” refers to the unbaked, moist state of the sand.

**2.** The main binder in green sand is: 
A) Resin 
B) Clay (bentonite) 
C) Sodium silicate 
D) Cement 

**Answer: B** 
Bentonite clay (montmorillonite) acts as the primary binder. When mixed with water it develops plasticity and strength, holding the sand grains together.

**3.** Typical moisture content in green sand is: 
A) 0.5–1% 
B) 2–8% 
C) 10–15% 
D) 15–20% 

**Answer: B** 
Optimum moisture is generally 2–8%. Too little moisture reduces strength; excess moisture causes steam defects and reduced permeability.

**4.** Dry sand moulds are prepared by: 
A) Using only dry sand without binder 
B) Baking green sand moulds to remove moisture 
C) Using oil-bonded sand 
D) Using CO₂ process 

**Answer: B** 
Dry sand moulds start as green sand moulds that are subsequently dried/baked (typically 150–300 °C) to remove free moisture, giving higher strength and better dimensional accuracy.

**5.** Compared with green sand, dry sand moulds have: 
A) Lower strength and higher permeability 
B) Higher strength and better surface finish 
C) Lower cost and faster production 
D) Higher moisture content 

**Answer: B** 
Baking removes moisture, increases mould strength, reduces gas defects, and generally improves surface finish and dimensional accuracy, though at higher cost and longer cycle time.

**6.** The primary advantage of green sand casting is: 
A) Highest dimensional accuracy 
B) Lowest cost and high production rate for small–medium castings 
C) Ability to cast very large components only 
D) No need for pattern 

**Answer: B** 
Green sand is inexpensive, reusable, and allows rapid mould making, making it the most widely used process for ferrous and non-ferrous castings of moderate size.

**7.** Facing sand is used: 
A) To fill the entire flask 
B) Only next to the pattern to improve surface finish 
C) As a core material 
D) For venting 

**Answer: B** 
Facing sand (finer, higher-quality mixture) is placed against the pattern surface to obtain better surface finish; backing sand fills the rest of the mould.

**8.** Permeability of moulding sand is important to: 
A) Increase mould hardness 
B) Allow escape of gases generated during pouring 
C) Improve collapsibility 
D) Increase green strength 

**Answer: B** 
During pouring, steam and other gases form. Adequate permeability prevents gas porosity and blowholes by allowing gases to escape through the mould wall.

**9.** Which property is higher in dry sand moulds than in green sand moulds? 
A) Collapsibility 
B) Dry strength 
C) Moisture content 
D) Flowability 

**Answer: B** 
Drying significantly increases dry compressive strength, enabling the mould to withstand the metallostatic pressure of heavier castings.

**10.** Green sand moulds are most suitable for: 
A) Very large castings requiring high strength 
B) Mass production of small to medium castings 
C) Precision investment casting 
D) Titanium alloys only 

**Answer: B** 
The process is economical and fast for high-volume production of components in the small-to-medium size range.

**11.** The main disadvantage of dry sand moulds is: 
A) Poor surface finish 
B) Higher cost and longer production time 
C) Low strength 
D) High gas evolution 

**Answer: B** 
Extra drying/baking step increases energy cost, cycle time, and labour, making the process less economical for high-volume production.

**12.** Which of the following is NOT a constituent of green sand? 
A) Silica sand 
B) Clay 
C) Water 
D) Phenolic resin 

**Answer: D** 
Phenolic resins are used in shell moulding or cold-box processes, not in conventional green sand.

### Casting Defects (Questions 13–24)

**13.** Blowholes are caused mainly by: 
A) Low pouring temperature 
B) Entrapment of gases in the molten metal 
C) Incorrect gating system design only 
D) Excessive ramming 

**Answer: B** 
Gases (steam from moisture, air, or reaction gases) trapped during solidification form round or irregular cavities known as blowholes.

**14.** Shrinkage cavity is a defect resulting from: 
A) Gas evolution 
B) Volume contraction during solidification without adequate feeding 
C) Sand expansion 
D) High moisture 

**Answer: B** 
Most metals contract on solidification. If liquid metal is not supplied to compensate, an internal or external shrinkage cavity forms.

**15.** Cold shuts occur when: 
A) Two streams of molten metal meet but do not fuse properly 
B) Mould collapses 
C) Excess gas is present 
D) Pouring temperature is too high 

**Answer: A** 
If the metal streams cool below the fusion temperature before meeting, they fail to weld together, producing a discontinuity called a cold shut.

**16.** Scab defect is associated with: 
A) Expansion of moulding sand 
B) Gas porosity 
C) Misrun 
D) Hot tear 

**Answer: A** 
When the mould face expands (due to silica phase change or heating) and breaks away, a thin layer of sand is pushed into the casting, forming a scab.

**17.** Hot tears (hot cracks) are caused by: 
A) Low mould strength 
B) Restricted contraction of the solidifying metal 
C) Excess moisture 
D) High pouring rate 

**Answer: B** 
As the casting cools and contracts, if the mould or cores offer high resistance, tensile stresses develop and produce intergranular cracks (hot tears) while the metal is still weak.

**18.** Misrun defect occurs when: 
A) Metal solidifies before completely filling the mould cavity 
B) Excess metal is poured 
C) Mould is overheated 
D) Core shifts 

**Answer: A** 
Insufficient fluidity (low temperature, long thin sections, or slow pouring) causes the metal to freeze before the cavity is completely filled.

**19.** Rat tails and buckles are surface defects caused by: 
A) Gas 
B) Expansion of the sand surface 
C) Shrinkage 
D) Core movement 

**Answer: B** 
Uneven expansion of the mould face produces irregular ridges (rat tails) or larger raised areas (buckles) on the casting surface.

**20.** Inclusion defects are primarily caused by: 
A) Foreign materials (slag, sand, oxide) entrapped in the metal 
B) High cooling rate 
C) Low carbon content 
D) Correct gating 

**Answer: A** 
Non-metallic particles from slag, eroded mould material, or oxides become trapped, forming inclusions that act as stress raisers.

**21.** Which defect is minimised by proper riser design? 
A) Blowholes 
B) Shrinkage cavities 
C) Cold shuts 
D) Scabs 

**Answer: B** 
Risers act as reservoirs of liquid metal that feed the casting during solidification, compensating for shrinkage.

**22.** Pinholes are a type of: 
A) Shrinkage defect 
B) Gas porosity (small, widely distributed) 
C) Sand expansion defect 
D) Hot tear 

**Answer: B** 
Pinholes are very small gas pores, often caused by dissolved gases (especially hydrogen in aluminium) coming out of solution during solidification.

**23.** Shift or mismatch defect is caused by: 
A) Improper alignment of cope and drag 
B) Excess moisture 
C) Low permeability 
D) High pouring temperature 

**Answer: A** 
If the two halves of the mould (cope and drag) are not properly aligned, the casting shows a step or offset at the parting line.

**24.** Which of the following helps reduce gas porosity? 
A) High moisture content 
B) Good permeability and proper venting 
C) Low pouring temperature only 
D) No risers 

**Answer: B** 
Adequate permeability and vents allow generated gases to escape, reducing the chance of gas entrapment.

### Die Casting, Continuous Casting & Centrifugal Casting (Questions 25–37)

**25.** Die casting is primarily used for: 
A) Large ferrous castings 
B) High-volume production of non-ferrous alloys with high dimensional accuracy 
C) One-off prototype castings 
D) Sand-moulded steel castings 

**Answer: B** 
Die casting forces molten metal under high pressure into reusable metal dies, ideal for aluminium, zinc, magnesium, and copper alloys in large quantities with excellent surface finish and tolerances.

**26.** In hot-chamber die casting, the injection system is: 
A) Completely outside the furnace 
B) Immersed in the molten metal bath 
C) Operated only with steel alloys 
D) Used for very large castings 

**Answer: B** 
In the hot-chamber process the gooseneck and plunger are submerged in the molten metal, allowing rapid cycling; it is suitable for low-melting alloys (Zn, Mg, Pb).

**27.** Cold-chamber die casting is preferred for: 
A) Zinc alloys 
B) Aluminium and copper alloys (higher melting points) 
C) Only pure metals 
D) Very small components 

**Answer: B** 
Higher-melting alloys would attack the submerged components of a hot-chamber machine; therefore metal is ladled into a cold shot sleeve for each cycle.

**28.** Continuous casting is widely used for producing: 
A) Complex shaped engine blocks 
B) Long lengths of billets, blooms, and slabs 
C) Artistic sculptures 
D) Thin-walled pressure die castings 

**Answer: B** 
Molten metal is poured into a water-cooled mould and continuously withdrawn as a solidifying strand, which is then cut into desired lengths of semi-finished products.

**29.** The main advantage of continuous casting over ingot casting is: 
A) Lower productivity 
B) Higher yield, better quality, and reduced energy consumption 
C) Ability to cast only pure metals 
D) No need for cooling 

**Answer: B** 
Continuous casting eliminates intermediate soaking and primary rolling steps, gives higher metal yield, more uniform structure, and lower energy use.

**30.** In centrifugal casting, the mould is rotated about: 
A) A horizontal, vertical, or inclined axis 
B) Only a fixed axis at 10 rpm 
C) No rotation is involved 
D) Only vertical axis at very low speed 

**Answer: A** 
Depending on the component (pipes, rings, rolls), the mould may rotate about a horizontal, vertical, or inclined axis; centrifugal force distributes the metal.

**31.** True centrifugal casting is mainly used to produce: 
A) Solid castings of complex shape 
B) Hollow cylindrical components such as pipes and tubes 
C) Flat plates 
D) Gears with teeth 

**Answer: B** 
Metal is poured into a rotating cylindrical mould; centrifugal force throws the metal against the mould wall, forming a hollow cylinder without a core.

**32.** Semi-centrifugal casting is suitable for: 
A) Long pipes 
B) Symmetrical objects such as wheels and pulleys where density variation is desired 
C) Thin sheets 
D) Only ferrous alloys 

**Answer: B** 
The mould is rotated about a vertical axis; denser metal moves outward, producing sound outer sections while the centre can be machined away if needed.

**33.** Centrifuging (centrifuge casting) is used for: 
A) Large single castings 
B) Multiple small castings arranged around a central sprue 
C) Continuous slabs 
D) Sand moulds only 

**Answer: B** 
Several mould cavities are placed radially around a central sprue on a rotating table; centrifugal force assists filling of the cavities.

**34.** Die casting produces castings with: 
A) Poor surface finish 
B) Excellent surface finish and close dimensional tolerances 
C) High porosity always 
D) No need for draft 

**Answer: B** 
Metal dies and high pressure result in fine detail, smooth surfaces, and tight tolerances (often ±0.05 mm or better).

**35.** Which process is best suited for producing long seamless pipes? 
A) Green sand casting 
B) True centrifugal casting 
C) Investment casting 
D) Gravity die casting 

**Answer: B** 
True centrifugal casting is the standard industrial method for cast iron and steel pipes.

**36.** In continuous casting, the mould is usually made of: 
A) Sand 
B) Water-cooled copper 
C) Ceramic only 
D) Graphite only 

**Answer: B** 
High-conductivity copper moulds with intensive water cooling extract heat rapidly so that a solid shell forms quickly.

**37.** A major limitation of die casting is: 
A) Low production rate 
B) Restricted to relatively low-melting-point non-ferrous alloys and high tooling cost 
C) Poor dimensional accuracy 
D) Inability to produce thin walls 

**Answer: B** 
Steel dies are expensive and have limited life with high-melting alloys; therefore the process is mainly used for Zn, Al, Mg, and some Cu alloys.

### Gas Welding (Questions 38–50)

**38.** The most common fuel gas used in oxy-fuel gas welding is: 
A) Hydrogen 
B) Acetylene 
C) Propane 
D) Natural gas 

**Answer: B** 
Acetylene produces the highest flame temperature (~3100–3200 °C) when burned with oxygen, making it ideal for welding steel and many other metals.

**39.** The neutral flame in oxy-acetylene welding has the ratio of oxygen to acetylene approximately: 
A) 1 : 1 
B) 2 : 1 
C) 1 : 2 
D) 3 : 1 

**Answer: A** 
A neutral flame (equal volumes) has an inner cone with a rounded tip and is used for most welding because it neither oxidises nor carburises the metal.

**40.** An oxidising flame is obtained when: 
A) Acetylene is in excess 
B) Oxygen is in excess 
C) Equal volumes are used 
D) No oxygen is supplied 

**Answer: B** 
Excess oxygen produces a shorter, pointed inner cone and is used for welding brass, bronze, and some non-ferrous metals where a slight oxide film is beneficial.

**41.** A carburising (reducing) flame is characterised by: 
A) Excess oxygen 
B) Excess acetylene (feathery outer cone) 
C) Equal volumes 
D) Pure acetylene only 

**Answer: B** 
Excess acetylene produces a luminous feather around the inner cone; it is used for welding high-carbon steels and for hard-facing.

**42.** The temperature of a neutral oxy-acetylene flame is approximately: 
A) 1500 °C 
B) 2500 °C 
C) 3100–3200 °C 
D) 4000 °C 

**Answer: C** 
The hottest part of the neutral flame (just beyond the inner cone tip) reaches about 3100–3200 °C.

**43.** Filler metal in gas welding is usually in the form of: 
A) Powder 
B) Rod or wire of similar composition to the base metal 
C) Electrode with flux coating 
D) Solid bar only 

**Answer: B** 
Bare or lightly coated rods matching the base metal composition are melted by the flame and added to the joint.

**44.** Flux is required in gas welding mainly when welding: 
A) Mild steel 
B) Cast iron, brass, bronze, and aluminium 
C) Only pure copper 
D) Never required 

**Answer: B** 
Flux removes oxides and protects the molten pool when welding metals that form refractory oxides (cast iron, non-ferrous alloys).

**45.** Leftward (forehand) welding technique is generally used for: 
A) Thick plates (>6 mm) 
B) Thin sheets and plates up to about 6 mm 
C) Only vertical welding 
D) Only overhead positions 

**Answer: B** 
In leftward welding the torch moves ahead of the filler rod; it gives good control on thin sections and is the most common technique for sheet metal.

**46.** Rightward (backhand) welding is preferred for: 
A) Thin sheets 
B) Thicker sections (>6 mm) because it provides better penetration and slower cooling 
C) Only aluminium 
D) Spot welding 

**Answer: B** 
The torch follows the filler rod, preheating the joint and allowing higher welding speeds and better fusion on thicker material.

**47.** The maximum thickness that can be conveniently welded by oxy-acetylene gas welding in a single pass is approximately: 
A) 1 mm 
B) 5–6 mm (beyond this multi-pass or other processes are preferred) 
C) 25 mm 
D) 50 mm 

**Answer: B** 
Gas welding is most efficient on thin to medium thicknesses; for thicker plates arc welding processes are generally more economical.

**48.** Flashback in gas welding is: 
A) A desirable phenomenon 
B) The burning of the flame back into the torch or hoses 
C) Formation of slag 
D) Excess filler metal 

**Answer: B** 
Flashback is a dangerous reverse travel of the flame into the torch or supply lines; it is prevented by flashback arrestors and correct operating procedures.

**49.** The inner cone of a neutral oxy-acetylene flame consists mainly of: 
A) Carbon dioxide 
B) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen (primary combustion zone) 
C) Pure oxygen 
D) Water vapour only 

**Answer: B** 
Primary combustion of acetylene with oxygen produces CO and H₂ in the inner cone; secondary combustion with atmospheric oxygen completes the reaction outside.

**50.** Which safety device is essential on both oxygen and acetylene lines? 
A) Only pressure gauges 
B) Flashback arrestors and non-return valves 
C) Only regulators 
D) No special devices needed 

**Answer: B** 
Flashback arrestors stop the flame from travelling back into the hoses or cylinders; non-return (check) valves prevent reverse gas flow, both being critical safety features.

These 50 questions cover the requested topics with accurate technical detail suitable for engineering students and competitive examinations.

psssb je mechanical book test series syllabus exam date 2026
VIVEK 1 August 2026
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